08-25-2009, 05:04 AM
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#13 (permalink)
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Re: India should have given more to Pakistan at Partition’
Quote:
Originally Posted by vinod2070
I don't know about other Indian languages but in Hindi we use the same nomenclature, hazaar, lakh, Karod, Arab, Kharab etc. So a typical North Indian will not say 400 Karod but 4 Arab. There is little or no difference in the street version of the two languages.
Your share of the pre-partition debt. That is what I can make out.
Pre-partition India had both assets and liabilities. You know about the assets and how Rs. 50 millions has been withheld but the liabilities were also to be divided.
It seems you never owned up to yours.
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( Good to know that people in India (esp north) are regardful of the Sau karoor is One Arab point but why oh why do I always hear Indians saying ''Sau Karoor this Sau karoor That.....?'')
Hahahaha
Where do you come up with all this Pre partition debt?
There wasnt any prepartition debt to be cleared between Pakistan and India. Wasnt Pakistan part of India once? And how can someone come up with, ''oh this part of the country owes the other part such and such amount''
Its like two brothers living in one house(which was once owned by their parents) eating the same food,using the same utilities and then one day they go their own ways but when the younger brother asks for his share in the house the older brother says ''You already owe me money for the food that you have been eating in this house''....
Could you please get some unbiased factual documentation to support the notion that you have put forward? I am asking Pakistan owing India ?
Until then .....
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